Family Nurse Practitioner Practice Question and Answer Part 1

Manifestation of alcohol withdrawal may include all of the following except:

Delusions

Delirium tremors

Seizures

Bradycardia

Correct! Wrong!

In grand mal seizures, the patient’s signs and symptoms typically include:

Tonic-clonic and incontinence

Blank spell and tonic-clonic

Lip smacking and blank spell

Incontinence and blank spell

Correct! Wrong!

What is the most common type of seizure?

Petit mal

Narcolepsy

Tonic-clonic (grand mal)

Jacksonian

Correct! Wrong!

Compared with delirium, dementia can be best described as:

Slow and progressive

Irreversible

Quickly developing

Impaired consciousness

Correct! Wrong!

In schizophrenia, the neurotransmitter dopamine will likely be:

Decreased

Increased

Unaffected

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

6. The medication of choice for status epileptics is:

Phenytoin

Phenobarbital

Diazepam IV

Valproic acid

Correct! Wrong!

A twenty-six-year-old female presents to your office with signs and symptoms of erythema, bronchiole constriction, and laryngeal swelling. What is the most likely hypersensitivity reaction type?

Type I

Type II

Type III

Type IV

Correct! Wrong!

Klinefelter syndrome signs include all of the following except:

Gynecomastia

Tall stature

Short stature

Hypogonadism

Correct! Wrong!

A common clinical feature consistent with SLE is:

Malar rash

Scleroderma

Hypotension

Sudden blindness

Correct! Wrong!

A thirty-three-year-old female presents to the clinic with a history of Sjogren’s syndrome. What clinical feature is typically an expected finding in this disorder?

Lymphocytopenia

Scleroderma

Dry eyes and mouth

Malar rash

Correct! Wrong!

The pathophysiology of the development of Sjogren’s syndrome involves:

Immunological destruction of the salivary and lacrimal glands

Positive antinuclear antibodies

Positive G6PD Heinz bodies

Insufficient lecithin synthesis by pneumocytes

Correct! Wrong!

Key features of Von Willebrand disease include:

aPTT and bleeding time prolonged

aPTT prolonged and bleeding time normal

aPTT prolonged and bleeding time decreased

aPTT and bleeding time remain the same

Correct! Wrong!

A “curtain coming down” best describes what diagnosis:

Macular degeneration

Retinal detachment

Glaucoma

Conjunctivitis

Correct! Wrong!

What is the medication of choice in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease?

Interferon

Namenda

Levodopa

Aricept

Correct! Wrong!

What is the treatment of choice for symptomatic bradycardia?

Atropine

Levophed

Dopamine

Metoprolol

Correct! Wrong!

What medication is the mainstay in the management of anaphylaxis?

Atropine

Epinephrine

Digoxin

Verapamil

Correct! Wrong!

17. What is the most potent medication used in the management of asthma?

Albuterol

Symbicort

Corticosteroid

Flovent

Correct! Wrong!

Bacterial meningitis is typically caused by what microorganism?

Neisseria meningitides

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Influenza virus

Staphylococcus aureus

Correct! Wrong!

A positive Finkelstein’s test typically indicates what condition?

Tendonitis

Rheumatic fever

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

Patellofemoral syndrome

Correct! Wrong!

A patient being treated with lithium reports symptoms of fatigue. What is the next step?

Check TSH/T4 level

Check liver function

Check HbA1c to rule out diabetes mellitus

Check HCG levels

Correct! Wrong!

What is the treatment of choice for atrophic vaginitis?

Topical estrogen

Oral estrogen

Intravenous estrogen

Sublingual estrogen

Correct! Wrong!

Deficiency of dopamine in the substantia nigra is associated with what disorder?

ALS

Parkinson’s disease

Alzheimer’s disease

Correct! Wrong!

What is the drug of choice for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)?

Amoxicillin clavulanate

Cefepime

Vancomycin

Zithromax

Correct! Wrong!

A Tensilon test is used to facilitate the diagnosis of:

Myasthenia gravis

Parkinson’s Disease

ALS

Correct! Wrong!

What antiseizure medication is also used for the management of diabetic neuropathy pain?

Gabapentin

Lamotrigine

Depakote

Dilantin

Correct! Wrong!

What antidepressant medication is also useful in the treatment of tobacco abuse?

Venlafaxine

Trazadone

Bupropion

Fluoxetine

Correct! Wrong!

What medication is the treatment of choice for bipolar disorder?

Prozac

Carbamazepine

Lamotrigine

Lithium

Correct! Wrong!

What pharmacological class of medication is the treatment of choice for panic disorder?

Mood stabilizer

Antidepressant

SSRIs

Antianxiety

Correct! Wrong!

A patient presents to the clinic and asks you to define obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD). Your best response would be:

Persistent recurrent behavioral patterns that interfere with daily life

Intermittent behavioral patterns that do not interfere with daily life

Staying awake at night with constant worry

The definition is complex, and you would not understand.

Correct! Wrong!

What is the most effective medication for generalized anxiety disorder?

Antidepressant

Benzodiazepines

SSRIs

Antianxiety

Correct! Wrong!

In COPD, what is the most common symptom reported?

SOB

Chest pain

Cough

Purulent sputum

Correct! Wrong!

What is the clinical definition of chronic bronchitis?

Permeant airspace enlargement due to destruction to the alveolar walls

Alveolar wall constrict to conserve oxygenation for better ventilation

Presence of productive cough for at least three months in two consecutive years

Presence of chest pain that waxes and wanes for at least three months in two consecutive years

Correct! Wrong!

Chest X-ray findings suggestive of COPD include all of the following except:

Increased retrosternal airspace

Decreased retrosternal space

Hyperinflation of lungs

Hyperlucency of the lungs

Correct! Wrong!

In a patient with a history of severe COPD, what is an expected finding in PFT results?

FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio decreased

FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio increased

FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio remains constant throughout the progression of the disease

FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio does not play a role in the evaluation of COPD

Correct! Wrong!

In a COPD patient, the indication for long-term O2 therapy is:

PaO2 < 55 mmHg or SaO2 < 88%

PaO2 88%

PaO2 > 55 mmHg or SaO2 88–100%

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following are signs and symptoms are clinical findings in pulmonary embolism except:

Chest pain, dyspnea, bradycardia

Wheezing, chest tightness, hemoptysis

SOB, tachycardia, chest tightness

Cough, SOB, wheezing

Correct! Wrong!

What are the guidelines and recommendations for AAA screening with ultrasonography (US)?

One-time screening with US for men between the ages of sixty- five and seventy-five who have ever smoked

One-time screening with US for men between the ages of 35-45 who have ever smoked.

One-time screening with US for men ages 45-55 who have ever smoked.

One-time screening with US for men age75 years older who have ever smoked

Correct! Wrong!

What bone density T-score range represents osteoporosis?

Between −1.0 and −2.5

Between 1.0 to and −1.0

Greater than −2.5

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

What is a major risk factor for the development of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?

Chronic alcoholism

Stress

Hypertension

Cigarette smoking

Correct! Wrong!

Neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques are typically manifested in what disorder?

Alzheimer’s

Parkinson’s

ALS

Correct! Wrong!

Occlusion of which of the following coronary blood vessels indicates an anterior wall MI:

Left circumflex

LAD

Right circumflex

Ramus

Correct! Wrong!

Clinical findings of which of the following most likely indicates hyperlipidemia:

Xanthelasma

Acanthosis nigricans

Yellow sclera

Alopecia

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is a sign/symptom of aortic regurgitation?

Pulsus alternans

Pulsus paradoxus

Bounding pulses

Water hammer pulses

Correct! Wrong!

What is the pathophysiology surrounding osteoarthritis of the knee?

Degradation of the cartilage and hypertrophy of bones at articular margins

Overuse of joints

Traumatic injury to the joint leading to overproduction on bones

The pathophysiology is not clearly understood

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following anti-glycemic medications stimulate insulin secretion (secretagogue) except:

Sulfonylureas

D-phenylalanine derivative

Meglitinide analogs

Victoza

Correct! Wrong!

Which vitamin is given to all newborns?

Vitamin D

Vitamin B12

Vitamin C

Vitamin K

Correct! Wrong!

What is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency?

IDA

Pernicious anemia

Megaloblastic anemia

Microcytic anemia

Correct! Wrong!

A twenty-seven-year-old female patient was diagnosed with megaloblastic anemia without neurological symptoms. What is the most likely vitamin deficiency?

Niacin

Pyridoxine

Folic acid

Thiamine

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following statements best describes a tension headache?

A unilateral headache associated with nausea and vomiting

A throbbing bilateral headache unassociated with nausea and vomiting

A non-throbbing bilateral headache unassociated with nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbance

An aching headache associated with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea

Correct! Wrong!

50. What is the difference between migraine with aura and migraine without aura?

Migraine with aura is associated with focal neurological deficits, and migraine without aura is associated with a unilateral, pulsating headache, nausea, and vomiting

Migraine with aura is associated with a unilateral, pulsating headache, nausea, and vomiting, and migraine without aura is with associated with focal neurological deficits

Migraine with aura is associated with focal neurological deficits, and migraine without aura is associated with a bilateral, throbbing headache and associated nausea and vomiting

Correct! Wrong!

At what age is the herpes zoster vaccine recommended?

Before 50 years of age

Between 50-60 years of age

60 years and older

At any age

Correct! Wrong!

Sudden onset of signs and symptoms of floaters, flashes of light, and blurred vision indicate which of the following conditions:

Uveitis

Trauma

Retinal detachment

Acute posterior vitreous detachment

Correct! Wrong!

What type of tremor is improved with the ingestion of alcohol?

Unintentional tremors

Essential tremors

Resting tremors

Postural tremor

Correct! Wrong!

What is the mechanism of action of raloxifene (Evista)?

It inhibits osteoclast activity.

It stimulates osteoblast activity.

It increases bone resorption of bone.

It decreases bone mineral density.

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following medication class is used to lower blood pressure in a patient diagnosed with BPH?

ACEIs

ARBs

Alpha-adrenergic blockers

CCBs

Correct! Wrong!

Rebound tenderness strongly indicates which of the following GI conditions:

Colon cancer

IBS

Crohn’s disease

Peritoneal inflammation

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following symptoms indicates hepatobiliary obstruction or systemic disease?

Yellow secretary diarrhea

Ecchymosis

Generalized pruritis

Constipation

Correct! Wrong!

The nurse practitioner places a tuning fork in the middle of the client’s skull and asks if the sound is the same in both ears. What conduction hearing test is being performed?

Weber

Rinne test

Audiometry

Pure tone audiometry

Correct! Wrong!

What is the primary cause of sensorineural hearing loss?

Bell’s palsy

Otosclerosis

Presbycusis

Tic douloureux

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following assessment tests is used to assess peripheral vision?

Cover test

Confrontation vision test

Snellen test

Corneal light test

Correct! Wrong!

The definitive test to evaluate for sleep apnea is:

Stress test

Trial of CPAP

Overnight polysomnogram

Epworth Sleepiness Scale

Correct! Wrong!

What is the first-line antibiotic therapy for the treatment of Group B hemolytic streptococcus pharyngitis?

Vancomycin

Penicillin

Clarithromycin

Erythromycin

Correct! Wrong!

What type of seizure involves alteration of consciousness?

Atonic seizures

Clonic seizures

Myoclonic seizures

Absence seizures

Correct! Wrong!

What is the medication of choice for OCD?

Clomipramine

Alprazolam

Buspirone

Carbamazepine

Correct! Wrong!

What is the most sensitive test to diagnose alcoholism?

AST

MCV

ALP

GGT

Correct! Wrong!

Which cranial nerve defect is seen in Bell’s palsy?

VII

Correct! Wrong!

The “herald patch” skin rash is a clinical manifestation of:

Measles

Rubella

Pityriasis rosea

Psoriasis

Correct! Wrong!

What is the treatment of choice for tinea capitis?

Oral griseofulvin

Metoprolol tartrate

Topical hydrocortisone

Oral corticosteroid

Correct! Wrong!

A key clinical feature of megaloblastic anemia is:

Macrocytic/hypochromic RBC

Microcytic/hyperchromic RBC

Macrocytic/hyperchromic RBC

Microcytic/hypochromic RBC

Correct! Wrong!

A key difference between folate deficiency and B12 deficiency is that the signs and symptoms of B12 deficiency include:

Neurological symptoms and anemia

Anemia and cardiac symptoms

Neurological and thyroid symptoms

Neurological and GI symptoms

Correct! Wrong!

Which of the following is a key feature of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

Splenomegaly

Reed-Sternberg cells

Heinz bodies

Howell-Jolly bodies

Correct! Wrong!

A thirty-three-year-old female presents to an outpatient clinic with signs and symptoms of sudden loss of vision, severe temporal head pain, scalp tenderness, and jaw pain. What is the likely diagnosis?

Polymyalgia rheumatica

Postherpetic neuralgia

Migraine headache

Giant cell arteritis

Correct! Wrong!

What is clubbing?

Thickening of the terminal phalanges of the fingers and/or toes

Thinning of the fingernails only

Ecchymosis of the fingernails

Discoloration of the fingernails and toenails

Correct! Wrong!

What is the most common cause of hearing loss?

Cholesteatoma

Otosclerosis

Presbycusis

Acoustic neuroma

Correct! Wrong!

What is the diagnostic test of choice for PUD?

Colonoscopy

Ultrasound

CT scan

Endoscopy

Correct! Wrong!

What is the primary etiology of acute pancreatitis?

Cigarette smoking

Alcohol

Cocaine use

High-fat foods

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following are an absolute contraindication to estrogen therapy except:

Unexplained vaginal bleeding

Active liver disease

History of thromboembolism

Seizure disorder

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following are signs and symptoms of iron deficiency anemia except:

Fatigue

Light-headedness

Dizziness

Bradycardia

Correct! Wrong!

One of the signs of right-side heart failure is:

Shortness of breath

Elevated peripheral venous pressure

Orthopnea

Bradycardia

Correct! Wrong!

A common side effect of an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor is:

Elevated BUN/Cr

Elevated Pt/INR

Elevated liver enzymes

Elevated TSH/T4

Correct! Wrong!

Common signs and symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include all of the following except:

Thin, gray-white vaginal discharge, mildly adherent to vaginal walls

Frothy discharge

Thick, curd-like vaginal discharge

Fishy-smelling vaginal discharge

Correct! Wrong!

What is the treatment of choice for temporal arteries?

Antibiotics

Antifungals

Anti-glycemic regimen

Corticosteroids

Correct! Wrong!

What is the treatment of choice for intermittent claudication?

Pletal

INH

Metoprolol

ASA

Correct! Wrong!

What is the (MOA) of metformin?

Increases glucose production in the liver and increases glucose uptake

Decreases glucose production in the liver and decreases glucose uptake

Decreases glucose production in the liver and increases glucose uptake

Increases glucose production in the liver and decreases glucose uptake

Correct! Wrong!

What is genu valgum?

Bow-legged

Knock-knees

Fibromyalgia

Diastrophic dysplasia

Correct! Wrong!

At what age does the anterior fontanel close?

Two months

Eight months

Twelve months

Fifteen months

Correct! Wrong!

What is the etiology of erythema infectiosum (Fifth disease)?

Parvovirus

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Streptococcus aureus

Enterobius vermicularis

Correct! Wrong!

A positive Ortolani sign indicates what disorder:

Acetabular immaturity

Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)

Fracture of femoral neck

None of the above

Correct! Wrong!

What dose of folic acid is recommended for pregnant women to prevent neural tube defects?

0.2 mg

0.4 mg

0.8 mg

1 mg

Correct! Wrong!

How long does it take for Wellbutrin to become effective?

Four weeks

Two weeks

Six weeks

Eight weeks

Correct! Wrong!

Ovarian cancer is linked to which tumor marker:

AFP

CEA

Cancer antigen 125

CA-50

Correct! Wrong!

What is the most common cause of anterior knee pain in runners?

Osteochondritis

Osgood-Schlatter

Bursitis

Patellofemoral syndrome

Correct! Wrong!

How long should facial suture stay in place

Three to five days

One to three days

Five to seven days

Seven to eleven days

Correct! Wrong!

A nursing student asks you what nerve is affected with carpal tunnel syndrome. What is the best response?

Radial nerve

Median nerve

Brachial nerve

Ulnar nerve

Correct! Wrong!

Which syndrome is characterized by fever, pericarditis, and an elevated ESR after a recent MI?

Werner syndrome

Inferior vena cava syndrome

Acute coronary syndrome

Dressler syndrome

Correct! Wrong!

What is the best cardiac marker to detect MI?

CK-MB

Troponin

Myoglobin

LDH

Correct! Wrong!

A mother brought her child to the clinic for a well visit. You auscultated a continuous, “machine-like.” murmur. What is the most likely diagnosis?

PDA

MVP

Correct! Wrong!

Holosystolic murmur is a common clinical finding in which of the following heart defects:

MVP

Correct! Wrong!

The most common acyanotic congenital heart defect is:

VSD

ASD

PDA

Tetralogy of Fallot

Correct! Wrong!

All of the following are cyanotic congenital heart defects except:

PDA

Tetralogy of Fallot

Transposition of the great vessel

Persistent truncus arteriosus

Correct! Wrong!